6 For when we were still without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.

This is Romans 5:6.

My question is this: Wouldn't this be a good opportunity to interject something about Jesus not dying for all people if that were true? If Christ died for the ungodly, which according to Romans 3:9-18 is everyone, that proves Jesus died for everyone.

Maybe I haven't heard the best explanation of the Calvinist view, but so far it seems as though logic is left out. For example, when someone explains the Calvinist view of irresistable grace to me, it is explained sort of like this: "When God reveals His goodness and all He is to you, you will chose him." Further questioning on my part reveals that there is no free will involved. So here you go-

If people can't say no, is it a choice? NO!

It baffles me, to say the least. I am still continuing to dialogue in the hope of better understanding this point of view.

If Jesus died for everyone (Romans 3) and everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved (Romans 10) then a view of Romans 9 that does not fit the chapters surrounding it is incorrect.